At my first hospital appt I stated my position, that statistics back me up that VBAC need be treated no differently to VBAC 1, and was told firstly that statistics are not everything, (he asked me if I would cross a road knowing that I had a 9/1000 chance of being hit - I wish I had thought quick enough to say all the things that I thought of later) but he continually came back to the notes in my vbac saying I had a bilateral extension down inferiorly on both angles, and this put my risk much higher anyway, that in his opinion I would rupture and did I understand the consequences of that, what does this mean, I tore during my last birth, could I get some reassurance or unbiased advice on what potential impact could have on my vbac2!!
Thank you
Kate
Kate
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