I have never seen a uterine prolapse, cystocele and rectocele. Can I assume a cyctocele is where the bladder prolapses into the vagina and rectocele is the bowel prolapsing into the vagina? And as for the uterine prolapse is that where the whole uterus is prolapsing downwards or does it actually sort of turn inside out (called an inverted uterus) I am only asking to make sure my understanding is clear before offering any advise.

The ladies I have seen as a midwife that have had a prior prolapse during birth itself and have required immediate repair (as its causes heamorrage) have had c/s for subsequent pregnancies. Ladies that I have seen have prior surgery for hernia's of the vagina/bowel, fistulas etc have also had c/s with subsequent births so there is no risk of birth undoing the surgery that has previously being done however if you have not had surgery to repair the uterine prolapse, cystocele and rectocele I would assume there would be no reason to need a c/s for your future births especially if you have had a birth since unless it was your wish to have a c/s.

If what you have is what I am thinking (I might have it totally wrong) where the vaginal walls are weakened from your first birth and have caused the bladder and bowel to prolapse into the vagina then I think it would be perfectly safe to have a vaginal birth provided they have not being operated on and there has not being a fistula (opening from vagina into the bowel or bladder). I imagine if it were a problem then you would have being advised not to birth vaginally after your first baby though. This is all over the place and I hope I havent confused you. I just didnt like to see that your post had not being answered.