Hi all

I went to my GP and did a HPT and there was a faint second line, but a second line all the same. He sent me for bloods to confirm and will have the results back today.

I'm aware of my cycle and always document CD1 just to keep track as they have been wacky in the past. My last 2 cycles were 27 and 28 days, meaning it's most probable that I O'd on day 13 or 14 of my cycle...based on that theory, I BD'd without protection on CD12, with protection on CD17, CD21 & CD22. I'm currently on CD34 and the faint BFP was yesterday (not FMU).

The liklihood, I'm assuming, is that conception would have happened as a result of the unprotected sex on CD12. As far as I'm aware there were no breakages in the condoms used on CD17, CD21 or CD22.

My question is, based on your knowledge, would you say the unprotected BDing would be the likliest way I have fallen pregnant, as opposed to a break in a condom (which I can't even confirm, just giving scenario)? And what are the chances that I could have possibly O'd on CD21 or CD22 and then had a positive at the GP (In my experience the GP tests have a higher level needed to pick up then, say, a first response)???

TIA!!!